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- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
sequestered in museums and galleries, is art specif-
28. According to the information included in the
ically designed for a public arena where the art will
passage, which of the following is true of archae-
be encountered by people in their normal day-to-day
ologists in Moscow?
activities. Public art can be purely ornamental or
a. They have uncovered a great number of his-
highly functional; it can be as subtle as a decorative
torically significant items, both large and
door knob or as conspicuous as the Chicago Picasso.
small.
It is also an essential element of effective urban
b. They operate under severe time constraints, as
design.
contractors wait to begin new buildings.
(4) The more obvious forms of public art
c. There are not nearly enough archaeological
include monuments, sculptures, fountains, murals,
teams to conduct all the possible research.
and gardens. But public art also takes the form of
d. They are concerned about preserving the arti-
ornamental benches or street lights, decorative
facts of modes of transportation in particular.
manhole covers, and mosaics on trash bins. Many
city dwellers would be surprised to discover just
Questions 29–35 are based on the following passage.
how much public art is really around them and how
much art they have passed by without noticing,
(1) In Manhattan’s Eighth Avenue/Fourteenth Street
and how much impact public art has on their day-
subway station, a grinning bronze alligator with
to-day lives.
human hands pops out of a manhole cover to grab
(5) Public art fulfills several functions essential
a bronze “baby” whose head is the shape of a mon-
to the health of a city and its citizens. It educates
eybag. In the Bronx General Post Office, a giant 13-
about history and culture—of the artist, the neigh-
panel painting called Resources of America celebrates
borhood, the city, the nation. Public art is also a
the hard work and industrialism of America in the
“place-making device” that instantly creates memo-
first half of the twentieth century. And in Brooklyn’s
rable, experiential landmarks, fashioning a unique
MetroTech Center just over the Brooklyn Bridge,
identity for a public place, personalizing it and giv-
several installations of art are on view at any given
ing it a specific character. It stimulates the public,
time—from an iron lasso resembling a giant charm
challenging viewers to interpret the art and arousing
bracelet to a series of wagons that play recordings of
their emotions, and it promotes community by stim-
great American poems to a life-sized seeing-eye dog
ulating interaction among viewers. In serving these
that looks so real people are constantly stopping to
multiple and important functions, public art beau-
pet it.
tifies the area and regenerates both the place and the
(2) There exists in every city a symbolic rela-
viewer.
tionship between the city and its art. When we hear
(6) One question often debated in public art
the term art, we tend to think of private art—the
forums is whether public art should be created with
kind displayed in private spaces such as museums,
or by the public rather than for the public. Increas-
concert halls, and galleries. But there is a growing
ingly, cities and artists are recognizing the impor-
interest in, and respect for, public art: the kind of art
tance of creating works with meaning for the
created for and displayed in public spaces such as
intended audience, and this generally requires direct
parks, building lobbies, and sidewalks.
input from the community or from an artist
(3) Although all art is inherently public—
entrenched in that community. At the same time,
created in order to convey an idea or emotion to
however, art created for the community by an
others—“public art,” as opposed to art that is
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- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
33. Which sentence best sums up the main idea of
“outsider” often adds fresh perspective. Thus, cities,
and their citizens are best served by a combination the passage?
of public art created by members of the community, a. Public art serves several important functions
art created with input from members of the com- in the city.
munity, and art created by others for the community. b. Public art is often in direct competition with
private art.
29. The primary purpose of the opening paragraph c. Public art should be created both by and for
is to members of the community.
a. show how entertaining public art can be. d. In general, public art is more interesting than
b. introduce readers to the idea of public art. private art.
c. define public art.
34. The author’s goal in this passage include all of
d. show the prevalence and diversity of
public art. the following EXCEPT
a. to make readers more aware of public art-
30. The word inherently at the beginning of para- works.
graph 3 most nearly means b. to explain the difference between public art
a. essentially. and private art.
b. complicated. c. to explain how public art impacts the city.
c. wealthy. d. to inspire readers to become public artists.
d. snobby.
35. Which of the following does the author NOT
31. According to paragraphs 3 and 4, public art is provide in this passage?
differentiated from private art mainly by a. an explanation of how the city affects art
a. the kind of ideas or emotions it aims to con- b. specific examples of urban art
vey to its audience. c. reason why outsiders should create public art
b. its accessibility. d. a clear distinction between public and
c. its perceived value. private art
d. its importance to the city.
Questions 36–42 are based on the following passage.
32. The use of the word sequestered in the first sen-
tence of paragraph 3 suggests that the author (1) Scientists have been studying radon and its
feels effects since the turn of the last century. This inert
a. private art is better than public art. gas has been proven to cause lung cancer and is sus-
b. private art is too isolated from the public. pected of being responsible for a range of other seri-
c. the admission fees for public art arenas pre- ous illnesses.
vent many people from experiencing the art. (2) Radon gas is created as the result of the
d. private art is more difficult to understand than decaying of uranium and radium. At the culmina-
public art. tion of this lengthy process, the disintegrating mat-
ter becomes radon, which then decays further,
releasing additional radiation and transforming into
what are known as radon daughters. Unlike radon,
209
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
there. Penetration and the subsequent depositing
the daughters are not inert because they are highly
of radiation are the result of a continuation of the
sensitive to their surroundings and are chemically
decaying process. An appreciable dose of alpha par-
active. Thus when the daughters enter buildings,
ticles can lead to cell destruction. Higher doses can
attach to clothing, mingle with dust particles, or are
be fatal. One comparative study analyzed similar
inhaled, health risks increase dramatically. Radon
doses from radon, X-rays, and atom bombs, and
exists across the United States, with somewhat
concluded that the chances of developing lung can-
higher amounts located in areas where granite is
cer from radon were equal to those from the other
common.
two radiation sources. In the United States most
(3) Radon gas released directly into the atmos-
incidences involve lower-level doses, however, which
phere poses slight health risks. Conversely, when it
destroy a relatively low number of cells. The body
is trapped and has the opportunity to accumulate,
will regenerate lost cells, so serious health problems
such as beneath houses and other structures, risks
become less likely.
increase significantly. This colorless, tasteless, and
(7) Serious problems materialize when cells
odorless element can seep into buildings through
are exposed repeatedly. The cycle of exposure-dam-
walls, soil, water supplies, and natural gas pipelines.
age-regeneration-exposure can weaken cells and
It can also be part of the properties of materials
ultimately change their makeup. Cell alteration can
such as brick, wallboard, and concrete. When radon
lead to lung cancer, genetic changes, and a host of
is prevalent in a building, it circulates in that build-
other medical problems.
ing’s air exchange and is inhaled by humans.
(4) The majority of the radon daughters
36. Gases from an outdoor radon leak
exhibit electrostatic qualities as they attach to items
a. present serious health ramifications.
such as clothing, furniture, and dust, a magnetic
b. are easy to detect.
process known as plating out. The remainder of the
c. create a negligible health threat.
daughters do not attach to anything. As an individ-
d. transform into radon daughters.
ual breathes the potentially damaging air, the
attached and unattached daughters enter the body.
37. It can be inferred from the passage that an inert
As the daughters travel through the body, particles
gas such as radon is
become attached to the respiratory tract, the
a. dormant in terms of chemical reactions.
bronchial region, the nose, and the throat. Some
b. unusually likely to decay.
particles are expelled during exhalation, but most
c. more dangerous than radon daughters.
remain within the individual.
d. created as the result of a distinct series of
(5) The unattached daughters are the most
events.
dangerous as their untethered route often carries
them directly to the lungs. They deposit significantly
38. One reason unattached daughters are more
more radioactivity than the attached daughters—
dangerous than attached daughters is that they
indeed, up to 40 times as much. Research indicates
a. demonstrate electrostatic qualities.
that those individuals who breathe primarily
b. are less likely to be expelled.
through their noses receive fewer doses than those
c. regenerate after entering the lungs.
who breathe primarily through their mouths.
d. have a free path toward internal organs.
(6) Alpha radiation begins penetrating the
lungs and other organs after radon daughters settle
210
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
39. Plating out is a term for a process of 3. Body mass index (BMI) is equal to
(weight in kilograms)
a. cohering.
(height in meters)2 . A man who weighs 64.8 kilo-
b. disseminating.
grams has a BMI of 20. How tall is he?
c. deteriorating.
a. 1.8 meters
d. permeating.
b. 0.9 meters
c. 2.16 meters
40. Health hazards from radon rise greatly when
d. 3.24 meters
a. gases accumulate inside buildings.
b. daughters leave the body via exhalation.
4. Pediatric specialist Dr. Drake charges $36.00 for
c. individuals inhale mostly through their noses.
an office visit, which is 3 of what general practi-
4
d. regeneration takes place.
tioner Dr. Jarmuth charges. How much does Dr.
Jarmuth charge?
41. Radon is formed as a consequence of
a. $48.00
a. the alteration of cells.
b. $27.00
b. the breakdown of elements.
c. $38.00
c. exposure to the atmosphere.
d. $57.00
d. an electrostatic process.
5. A town of 105,000 is served by 3 hospitals. How
42. In the United States, most cases of radon expo-
many people could be served by 4 hospitals?
sure involve doses that
a. 140,000
a. affect residents near granite formations.
b. 145,000
b. lead to genetic problems.
c. 130,000
c. cause recurring exposure.
d. 135,000
d. eliminate small amounts of cells.
6. A recipe serves four people and calls for 1 1 cups
2
of broth. If you want to serve six people, how
S ection 2: Mathematics much broth do you need?
a. 2 cups
b. 2 1 cups
1. Twelve less than 4 times a number is 20. What is 4
c. 2 1 cups
the number? 3
d. 2 1 cups
a. 2
2
b. 4
c. 6 7. How much water must be added to 1 liter of a
d. 8 5% saline solution to get a 2% saline solution?
a. 1 L
2. Kathy was half the age of her mother 20 years b. 1.5 L
ago. Kathy is 40. How old is Kathy’s mother? c. 2 L
a. 50 d. 2.5 L
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
211
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
12. A patient’s hospice stay cost 1 as much as his visit
8. If jogging for one mile uses 150 calories and brisk 4
walking for one mile uses 100 calories, a jogger to the emergency room. His home nursing cost
has to go how many times as far as a walker to twice as much as his hospice stay. If his total
use the same number of calories? health care bill was $140,000, how much did his
1 home nursing cost?
a. 2
a. $10,000
2
b. 3
b. $20,000
3
c. 2 c. $40,000
d. 2 d. $80,000
9. A dosage of a certain medication is 12 cc per 100 13. Mike types three times as fast as Nick. Together
pounds. What is the dosage for a patient who they type 24 pages per hour. If Nick learns to
weighs 175 pounds? type as fast as Mike, how much will they be able
a. 21 cc to type per hour?
b. 18 cc a. 30 pages
c. 15 cc b. 36 pages
d. 24 cc c. 40 pages
d. 48 pages
10. A woman drives west at 45 miles per hour. After
half an hour, her husband starts to follow her. 14. Ron is half as old as Sam, who is three times as
How fast must he drive to catch up to her three old as Ted. The sum of their ages is 55. How old
hours after he starts? is Ron?
a. 52.5 miles per hour a. 5
b. 55 miles per hour b. 10
c. 60 miles per hour c. 15
d. 67.5 miles per hour d. 30
11. Jason is six times as old as Kate. In two years,
Jason will be twice as old as Kate is then. How old
is Jason now?
a. 3 years old
b. 6 years old
c. 9 years old
d. 12 years old
212
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
Question 15 is based on the following diagram: 17. If angle 1 is 30°, and angle 2 is a right angle, what
is the measure of angle 5?
a. 60°
b. 30°
c. 150°
d. 120°
12
Question 18 is based on the following diagram.
5
15. What is the perimeter of the figure?
a. 30
b. 20
18. A half-circle is placed adjacent to a triangle, as
c. 17
shown in the diagram. What is the total area of
d. 60
the shape, if the radius of the half-circle is 3, and
the height of the triangle is 4?
16. A rectangular box has a square base with an area
a. 6(π + 4)
of 9 square feet. If the volume of the box is 36
b. 6π + 12
cubic feet, what is the longest object that can fit
9
in the box? c. 2π + 24
9π
a. 5.8 feet d. 2 + 12
b. 5 feet
c. 17 feet 19. If pentagon ABCDE is similar to pentagon
d. 3 feet FGHIJ, and AB = 10, CD = 5, and FG = 30, what
is IH?
Question 17 is based on the following diagram. a. 53
b. 5
c. 15
1
d. 30
3 2
20. A water tank is in the form of a right cylinder on
top of a hemisphere, both with a radius of 3 feet.
If the tank currently has 170 cubic feet of water
in it, how high does the water level reach in the
cylinder (from the top of the hemisphere)?
4
a. 3 feet
5
b. 2 feet
c. 6 feet
d. 4 feet
213
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
21. Louise wants to wallpaper a room. It has one Question 23 is based on the following diagram.
window that measures 3 feet by 4 feet, and one
12
door that measures 3 feet by 7 feet. The room is
12 feet by 12 feet, and is 10 feet tall. If only the
walls are to be covered, and rolls of wallpaper are 5
100 square feet, and no partial rolls can be pur-
chased, what is the minimum number of rolls
that she will need? 4
a. 4 rolls
b. 5 rolls
c. 6 rolls
23. Find the area of the parallelogram above.
d. 7 rolls
a. 48 units2
b. 68 units2
Question 22 is based on the following diagram.
c. 72 units2
d. 240 units2
Question 24 is based on the following diagram.
4
22. If the radius of the circle is 4 inches and the tri-
angle is a right isosceles triangle with one corner
8
in the center, what is the area of the shaded
portion?
a. 4π + 16 24. Find the area of the shape shown in the diagram
b. 4π – 16 above.
c. 8π – 8 a. 12 + 10π
d. 16π – 8 b. 32 + 12π
c. 12 + 12π
d. 32 + 10π
25. What is the next number in the series below?
3 16 6 12 12 8 ___
a. 4
b. 15
c. 20
d. 24
214
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
26. A pump installed on a well can pump at a maxi- Use the table below to answer question 29.
mum rate of 100 gallons per minute. If the pump
Class Time Schedule
runs at 50% of its maximum rate for six hours a
day, how much water is pumped in one day?
Period End Time
Start Time
a. 3.00 102 gallons
b. 1.80 104 gallons 1 7:55 8:35
c. 3.60 102 gallons
2 8:39 9:19
d. 7.20 102 gallons
3 10:03
27. It costs $0.75 each to make color copies at a copy 4 10:07 10:47
center. At this price, how many copies can be
purchased with $60.00? 5 10:51 11:31
a. 45 6 11:35 12:15
b. 60
7 12:19 12:59
c. 75
d. 80 8 1:03
9 1:47 2:27
Question 28 is based on the following diagram.
DISTANCE TRAVELED FROM
CHICAGO WITH RESPECT TO TIME 29. According to the table, what is the starting time
of period 3 and the ending time of period 8,
TIME DISTANCE FROM
( HOURS) CHICAGO (MILES)
respectively?
1 60 a. 9:24, 1:43
b. 9:23, 1:44
2 120
c. 9:29, 1:59
3 180
d. 9:23, 1:43
e. 9:24, 1:44
4 240
30. Anne has two containers for water: a rectangular
28. A train moving at a constant speed leaves
plastic box with a base of 16 square inches, and a
Chicago for Los Angeles at time t = 0. If Los
cylindrical container with a radius of 2 inches
Angeles is 2,000 miles from Chicago, which of
and a height of 11 inches. If the rectangular box
the following equations describes the distance
is filled with water 9 inches from the bottom, and
from Los Angeles at any time t?
Anne pours the water into the cylinder without
a. D(t) = 60t – 2,000
spilling, which of the following will be true?
b. D(t) = 60t
a. The cylinder will overflow.
c. D(t) = 2,000 – 60t
b. The cylinder will be exactly full.
d. D(t) = –2,000 – 60t
c. The cylinder will be filled to an approximate
level of 10 inches.
d. The cylinder will be filled to an approximate
level of 8 inches.
215
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
35. The Senior High School Band is washing cars to
31. Roger, Lucia, Mike, and Samantha are cousins.
earn money. It takes three students 5 minutes to
They all practice unique sports: One enjoys ski-
wash a car, 7 minutes to wash a truck, and 10
ing, one enjoys fishing, one enjoys tennis, and
minutes to wash a van. If they charge $3.00 for a
one enjoys volleyball.
car, $4.00 for a truck, and $5.00 for a van, which
I. The cousin who fishes is female.
vehicle will earn the band the most money for
II. Roger and Lucia dislike sports with balls.
the time spent working?
III. Samantha is older than the cousin who
a. Cars
fishes.
b. Trucks
Who likes to fish?
c. Vans
a. Roger
d. There is no difference in the amount of money
b. Mike
earned per time worked.
c. Samantha
d. Lucia
36. The length of a rectangle is equal to 4 inches
32. A triangle has sides that are consecutive even more than twice the width. Three times the
length plus two times the width is equal to 28
integers. The perimeter of the triangle is 24
inches. What is the area of the rectangle?
inches. What is the length of the shortest side?
a. 8 square inches
a. 10 inches
b. 16 square inches
b. 8 inches
c. 24 square inches
c. 6 inches
d. 28 square inches
d. 4 inches
37. A gardener on a large estate determines that the
33. Use the pattern below to answer the question
length of garden hose needed to reach from the
that follows.
water spigot to a particular patch of prize-
Z26 X23 V20 T17 ____
winning dragonsnaps is 175 feet. If the available
What is the next set in the sequence?
garden hoses are 45 feet long, how many sections
a. R15
of hose, when connected together, will it take to
b. Q15
reach the dragonsnaps?
c. Q14
a. 2
d. R14
b. 3
34. Jamal drives 15 miles round trip to work on c. 4
d. 5
weekdays. On weekends, he drives an average of
20 miles per day. If Jamal gets 25 miles per gal-
38. Which number sentence is true?
lon, and buys gas in whole gallon increments,
a. 4.3 < 0.43
how many gallons of gas does he have to buy in a
b. 0.43 < 0.043
week?
c. 0.043 > 0.0043
a. 3 gallons
d. 0.0043 > 0.043
b. 4 gallons
c. 5 gallons
d. 6 gallons
216
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
39. Which of the following means 5n + 7 = 17? 45. What is another way to write 3 12?
a. 7 more than 5 times a number is 17 a. 12 3
b. 5 more than 7 times a number is 17 b. 6 3
c. 7 less than 5 times a number is 17 c. 2 10
d. 12 times a number is 17 d. 18
40. Which of these is equivalent to 35° C? 46. Third grade student Stephanie goes to the school
F = 9 C + 32 nurse’s office, where her temperature is found to
5
a. 105° F be 98° Fahrenheit. What is her temperature in
degrees Celsius? C = 5 (F – 32)
b. 95° F
9
c. 63° F a. 35.8° C
d. 19° F b. 36.7° C
c. 37.6° C
41. What is the value of y when x = 3 and y = 5 + 4x? d. 31.1° C
a. 6
b. 9 47. Plattville is 80 miles west and 60 miles north of
c. 12 Quincy. How long is a direct route from Plattville
d. 17 to Quincy?
a. 100 miles
42. The radius of a circle is 13. What is the approxi- b. 110 miles
mate area of the circle? c. 120 miles
a. 81.64 units squared d. 140 miles
b. 530.66 units squared
c. 1,666.27 units squared 48. Each sprinkler head in a sprinkler system sprays
d. 169 units squared water at an average of 16 gallons per minute. If 5
sprinkler heads are flowing at the same time,
43. What is the volume of a pyramid that has a rec- how many gallons of water will be released in 10
tangular base 5 feet by 3 feet and a height of 8 minutes?
feet? (V = 1 lwh) a. 80
3
a. 16 feet b. 60
b. 30 feet c. 320
c. 40 feet d. 800
d. 80 feet
44. Which of these angle measures form a right
triangle?
a. 45°, 50°, 85°
b. 40°, 40°, 100°
c. 40°, 50°, 90°
d. 20°, 30°, 130°
217
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
S ection 3: Writing (Part A— 2. Which of the following words should replace the
Multiple-Choice) underlined word in Part 6?
a. studied
b. will study
Questions 1–3 are based on the following passage.
c. had been studying
d. would have studied
(1) Augustus Saint-Gaudens was born March 1,
1848, in Dublin, Ireland, to Bernard Saint-Gaudens,
3. Which of the following changes needs to be
a French shoemaker, and Mary McGuinness, his
made to the passage?
Irish wife. (2) Six months later, the family immi-
a. Part 2: Change where to when.
grated to New York City, where Augustus grew up.
b. Part 5: Change renown to renowned.
(3) Upon completion of school at age thirteen, he
c. Part 8: Change its to it’s.
expressed strong interest in art as a career so his
d. Part 3: Change expressed to impressed.
father apprenticed him to a cameo cutter. (4) While
working days at his cameo lathe, Augustus also took
Questions 4–6 are based on the following passage.
art classes at the Cooper Union and the National
Academy of Design.
(1) Everglades National Park is the largest remaining
(5) At 19, his apprenticeship completed,
sub-tropical wilderness in the continental United
Augustus traveled to Paris where he studied under
States. (2) It is home to abundant wildlife; including
Francois Jouffry at the renown Ecole des Beaux-
alligators, crocodiles, manatees, and Florida pan-
Arts. (6) In 1870, he left Paris for Rome, where for
thers. (3) The climate of the Everglades are mild
the next five years, he studies classical art and archi-
and pleasant from December through April, though
tecture, and worked on his first commissions. (7) In
rare cold fronts may create near freezing conditions.
1876, he received his first major commission—a
(4) Summers are hot and humid; in summer, the
monument to Civil War Admiral David Glasgow
temperatures often soar to around 90 degrees and
Farragut. (8) Unveiled in New York’s Madison
the humidity climbs to over 90 percent. (5) After-
Square in 1881, the monument was a tremendous
noon thunderstorms are common, and mosquitoes
success; its combination of realism and allegory was
are abundant. (6) If you visit the Everglades, wear
a departure from previous American sculpture. (9)
comfortable sportswear in winter; loose-fitting,
Saint-Gaudens’ fame grew, and other commissions
long-sleeved shirts and pants, and insect repellent
were quickly forthcoming.
are recommended in the summer.
(7) Walking and canoe trails, boat tours, and
1. Which of the following numbered parts requires
tram tours are excellent for viewing wildlife, includ-
a comma to separate two independent clauses?
ing alligators and a multitude of tropical and tem-
a. Part 9
perate birds. (8) Camping, whether in the back
b. Part 3
country or at established campgrounds, offers the
c. Part 7
opportunity to enjoy what the park offers firsthand.
d. Part 1
(9) Year-round, ranger-led activities may help you to
enjoy your visit even more; such activities are offered
throughout the park in all seasons.
218
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
4. Which of the following numbered parts contains 7. Which of the following numbered parts is least
a nonstandard use of a semicolon? relevant to the passage?
a. Part 6 a. Part 4
b. Part 2 b. Part 1
c. Part 9 c. Part 3
d. Part 4 d. Part 2
5. Which of the following numbered parts needs to 8. Which of the following changes needs to be
be revised to reduce unnecessary repetition? made to the passage?
a. Part 4 a. Part 4: Change imply to infer.
b. Part 6 b. Part 2: Change contain to containing.
c. Part 9 c. Part 1: Change criteria to criterion.
d. Part 8 d. Part 4: Change designation to assignation.
6. Which of the following changes is needed in the Questions 9–11 are based on the following passage.
passage?
a. Part 6: Remove the comma after Everglades. (1) Being able to type good is no longer a require-
b. Part 2: Change It is to Its. ment limited to secretaries and novelists; thanks to
c. Part 8: Remove the comma after campgrounds. the computer, anyone who wants to enter the work-
d. Part 3: Change are to is. ing world needs to be accustomed to a keyboard. (2)
Just knowing your way around a keyboard does not
Questions 7 and 8 are based on the following passage. mean that you can use one efficiently, though; while
you may have progressed beyond the “hunt-and-
(1) On January 1, 1998, the Food and Drug Admin- peck” method, you may never have learned to type
istration (FDA) announced that lower-fat milk quickly and accurately. (3) Doing so is a skill that will
products had to follow the same set of criteria as not only ensure that you pass a typing proficiency
most other foods labeled “low fat.” (2) This meant exam, but one that is essential if you want to advance
that such products as 2-percent milk, which contain your career in any number of fields. (4) This chap-
about 5 grams of fat per serving, could no longer be ter assures that you are familiar enough with a stan-
labeled “low fat” because the fat content was more dard keyboard to be able to use it without looking at
than 3 grams per serving, the upper limit permitted the keys, which is the first step in learning to type,
in food products labeled “low fat.” (3) The Surgeon and that you are aware of the proper fingering. (5)
General advised that low-fat and high-fiber diets The following information will help you to increase
help to improve the health of Americans and reduce your speed and accuracy and to do our best when
medical costs to the country. (4) The FDA judged being tested on timed writing passages.
that the designation “2-percent fat” on reduced fat
9. Which of the following numbered parts contains
milk products was causing consumers to imply that
such products were actually low in fat content. a nonstandard use of a modifier?
a. Part 5
b. Part 2
c. Part 3
d. Part 1
219
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
13. Which of the following numbered parts contains
10. Which of the following words, underlined in the
a nonstandard sentence?
passage, is misused in its context?
a. Part 3
a. assures
b. Part 4
b. proficiency
c. Part 1
c. fingering
d. Part 2
d. accustomed
11. Which of the following changes needs to be Questions 14–16 are based on the following passage.
made in the passage?
a. Part 3: Remove the comma after exam. (1) O’Connell Street is the main thoroughfare of
b. Part 4: Insert a colon after that. Dublin City. (2) Although it is not a particularly
c. Part 1: Change needs to needed. long street Dubliners will tell the visitor proudly
d. Part 5: Change our to your. that it is the widest street in all of Europe. (3) This
claim usually meets with protests, especially from
French tourists who claim the Champs Elysees of
Questions 12 and 13 are based on the following passage.
Paris as Europe’s widest street. (4) But the witty
Dubliner will not ensign bragging rights easily and
(1) None of us knew my Uncle Elmer, not even my
mother (he would have been ten years older than will trump the French visitor with a fine distinc-
she) we had pictures of him in an ancient family tion: the Champs Elysees is the widest boulevard, but
album, a solemn, spindly baby, dressed in a white O’Connell is the widest street.
muslin shirt, ready for bed, or in a sailor suit, hold- (5) Divided by several important monuments
ing a little drum. (2) In one photograph, he stands running the length of its center, the street is named
in front of a tall chiffonier, which looms behind for Daniel O’Connell, an Irish patriot. (6) An
him, massive and shadowy, like one of the Fates in impressive monument to him towers over the
a greek play. (3) There weren’t many such pictures, entrance of lower O’Connell Street and overlooking
because photographs weren’t easy to come by in the Liffey River. (7) O’Connell stands high above the
those days, and in the ones we did have, my uncle unhurried crowds of shoppers, business people, and
had a formal posed look, as if, even then, he knew he students on a sturdy column; he is surrounded by
was bound for some unique destiny. (4) It was the four serene angels seated at each corner of the mon-
summer I turned thirteen that I found out what ument’s base.
happened to him, the summer Sister Mattie Fisher,
14. Which of the following words should replace the
one of Grandma’s evangelist friends, paid us a visit,
sweeping in like a cleansing wind and telling the underlined word in Part 4 of the passage?
truth. a. require
b. relinquish
12. Which of the following changes needs to be c. acquire
made to the above passage? d. assign
a. Part 4: Change friends to friend’s.
b. Part 4: Change Sister to sister.
c. Part 2: Change greek to Greek.
d. Part 3: Change uncle to Uncle.
220
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
18. Which of the following numbered parts contains
15. Which of the following changes needs to be
a nonstandard use of a modifier?
made to the second paragraph of the passage?
a. Part 7
a. Part 7: Replace the semicolon with a comma.
b. Part 5
b. Part 5: Change Irish to irish.
c. Part 3
c. Part 5: Change running to run.
d. Part 2
d. Part 6: Change overlooking to overlooks.
19. Which of the following changes needs to be
16. Which of the following changes needs to be
made to Part 1?
made to the first paragraph of the passage?
a. Insert a comma after early.
a. Part 2: Insert a comma after that.
b. Change too to two.
b. Part 3: Replace the comma after protests with a
c. Change Lake to Lake’s.
semicolon.
d. Change its to it’s.
c. Part 4: Remove the colon after distinction.
d. Part 2: Insert a comma after the first street.
Questions 20–22 are based on the following passage.
Questions 17–19 are based on the following passage.
(1) If your office job involves telephone work, than
(1) Mrs. Lake arriving twenty minutes early sur- your faceless voice may be the first contact a caller
prised and irritated Nicholas, although the moment has with your company or organization. (2) For this
for saying so slipped past too quickly for him to reason, your telephone manners have to be impec-
snatch its opportunity. cable. (3) Always answer the phone promptly, on the
(2) She was a thin woman of medium height, first or second ring if possible. (4) Speak directly into
not much older than he—in her middle forties he the phone, neither too loudly nor too softly, in a
judged—dressed in a red-and-white, polka-dot dress pleasant, cheerful voice. (5) Vary the pitch of your
and open-toed red shoes with extremely high heels. voice, so that it will not sound monotonous or unin-
(3) Her short brown hair was crimped in waves, terested, and be sure to enunciate clearly. (6) After a
which gave a incongruous, quaint, old-fashioned short, friendly greeting, state your company or boss’s
effect. (4) She had a pointed nose. (5) Her eyes, set name, then your own name.
rather shallow, were light brown and inquisitive. (7) Always take messages carefully. (8) Fill out
(6) “Dr. Markley?” she asked. (7) Nicholas all pertinent blanks on the message pad sheet while
nodded, and the woman walked in past him, pro- you are still on the phone. (9) Always let the caller
ceeding with little mincing steps to the center of the hang up first. (10) Do not depend in your memory
living room where she stood with her back turned for the spelling of a name or the last digit of a phone
looking around. (8) “My my,” she said. (9) “This is number, and be sure to write legibly. (11) When it is
a nice house. (10) Do you live here all alone?” time to close a conversation, do so in a pleasant
manner, and never hang up without saying good-
17. Which of the following changes should be made bye. (12) While it is not an absolute rule, generally
in Part 3? closing with “Good-bye” is preferable to “Bye-bye.”
a. Change was to is. (13) Verify the information by reading it back to
b. Change gave to gives. the caller.
c. Change a to an.
d. Change effect to affect.
221
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
23. Which of the following numbered parts contains
20. Which of the following editorial changes would
a nonstandard use of a pronoun?
most improve the clarity of development of ideas
a. Part 7
in the second paragraph?
b. Part 3
a. Delete Part 9.
c. Part 4
b. Reverse the order of Part 8 and Part 13.
d. Part 8
c. Reverse the order of Part 9 and Part 13.
d. Add a sentence after Part 7 explaining the
24. Which of the following changes needs to be
need to take phone messages from customers
politely. made to the passage?
a. Part 5: Change unreasonable to unreasonably.
21. Which of the following changes needs to be b. Part 7: Change the dash to a semicolon.
c. Part 8: Change were to we’re.
made to the first paragraph?
d. Part 4: Change deadlines to a deadline.
a. Part 5: Change it to they.
b. Part 1: Change than to then.
c. Part 2: Change manners to manner. Questions 25 and 26 are based on the following passage.
d. Part 6: Change boss’s to bosses.
(1) Beginning next month, the Department of San-
22. Which of the following numbered parts contains itation will institute a program intended to remove
a nonstandard use of a preposition? the graffiti from sanitation trucks. (2) Any truck
a. Part 1 that finishes its assigned route before the end of the
b. Part 2 workers’ shift will return to the sanitation lot, where
c. Part 8 supervisors will provide materials for workers to
d. Part 10 use in cleaning the trucks. (3) The length of time it
takes to complete different routes varies, therefore,
trucks will no longer be assigned to a specific route
Questions 23 and 24 are based on the following passage.
but will be rotated among the routes. (4) Therefore,
workers should no longer leave personal items in the
(1) Understand that your boss has problems, too. (2)
trucks, as they will not necessarily be using the same
This is easy to forget. (3) When someone has author-
truck each day as they did in the past.
ity over you, it’s hard to remember that they are just
(5) It is expected that all sanitation workers will
human. (4) Your boss may have children at home
eventually participate in the cleaning up of the
who misbehave, dogs or cats or parakeets that need
trucks. (6) The department estimates that the proj-
to go to the vet, deadlines to meet, and bosses of his
ect will take approximately one month to complete.
or her own (sometimes even bad ones) overseeing
his or her work. (5) If your boss is occasionally
unreasonable, try to keep in mind that it might have
nothing to do with you. (6) He or she may be hav-
ing a bad day for reasons no one else knows. (7) Of
course if such behavior becomes consistently abu-
sive, you’ll have to do something about it—confront
the problem or even quit. (8) But were all entitled to
occasional mood swings.
222
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
25. Which of the following sentences, if added 27. Which of the following editorial changes in the
between Parts 2 and 3 of the first paragraph, passage would best help to clarify the informa-
would be most consistent with the writer’s pur- tion the paragraph intends to convey?
pose and audience? a. Add a sentence between Parts 4 and 5 explain-
a. Workers will be required to spend the time ing that while the Stop Here Program allows
remaining in their shift cleaning graffiti from passengers to leave the bus at almost any
their trucks. point, passengers may board only at desig-
b. During the remainder of the shift, the guys nated stops.
will scrub the graffiti from the trucks. b. Delete Part 6.
c. Workers will be required to spend the time c. Add a sentence between Parts 5 and 6 explain-
remaining in their shift sanitizing their filthy ing the safety advantages for passengers who
trucks. flag down buses at night.
d. During the rest of the shift, the garbage men d. Reverse the order of Parts 4 and 5.
will spruce up their trucks.
28. Which of the following numbered parts contains
26. Which of the following numbered parts in the a nonstandard use of a pronoun?
passage contains a nonstandard sentence? a. Part 3
a. Part 1 b. Part 5
b. Part 6 c. Part 1
c. Part 2 d. Part 2
d. Part 3
Questions 29 and 30 are based on the following passage.
Questions 27 and 28 are based on the following passage.
(1) In October 1993, a disastrous wildfire swept
(1) Beginning next month, City Transit will institute across portions of Charlesburg. (2) Five residents
the Stop Here Program, who will be in effect every were killed, 320 homes destroyed, and 19,500 acres
night from 10:00 P.M. until 4:00 A.M. (2) The pro- burned. (3) A public safety task force was formed to
review emergency choices. (4) The task force find-
gram will allow drivers to stop the bus wherever a
ings were as follows;
passenger wishes, as long as they deem it is safe to
(5) The water supply in the residential areas
stop there. (3) This program will reduce the amount
was insufficient, some hydrants could not even be
of walking that passengers will have to do after dark.
opened. (6) The task force recommended a review of
(4) Passengers may request a stop anywhere along
hydrant inspection policy.
the bus route by pulling the bell cord a block ahead.
(7) The fire companies that responded had
(5) During the first two months of the program,
difficulty locating specific sites. (8) Most came from
when passengers attempt to flag down a bus any-
other areas and were not familiar with Charlesburg.
where but at a designated stop, the bus driver should
(9) The available maps were outdated and did not
proceed to the next stop and wait for them to board
reflect recent housing developments.
the bus. (6) Then the driver should give the passen-
ger a brochure that explains the Stop Here Program.
223
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
31. Which of the following sentences is a sentence
(10) Evacuation procedures were inadequate.
(11) Residents reported being given conflicting fragment?
and/or confusing information. (12) Some residents a. Part 5
of the Hilltop Estates subdivision ignored manda- b. Part 2
tory evacuation orders, yet others were praised for c. Part 4
their cooperation. d. Part 3
29. Which of the following numbered parts contains 32. Which of the following adverbs should replace
a nonstandard sentence? the words Finally though in Part 2?
a. Part 7 a. Suddenly
b. Part 5 b. Concurrently
c. Part 3 c. Simultaneously
d. Part 12 d. Recently
30. Which of the following changes needs to be 33. Which of the following changes needs to be
made to the passage? made to Part 4?
a. Part 12: Change their to they’re. a. Insert a comma after the word zones.
b. Part 12: Insert a comma after others. b. Delete the word since at the beginning of the
c. Part 2: Remove the comma after killed. sentence.
d. Part 4: Replace the semicolon with a colon. c. Delete the comma after the word inland.
d. Add a question mark at the end of the
Questions 31–33 are based on the following passage. sentence.
(1) For years, Mt. Desert Island, particularly its Questions 34 and 35 are based on the following passage.
major settlement, Bar Harbor, afforded summer
homes for the wealthy. (2) Finally though, Bar Har- (1) Glaciers consist of fallen snow that compresses
bor has become a burgeoning arts community as over many years into large, thickened ice masses.
well. (3) But, the best part of the island is the (2) Most of the world’s glacial ice is found in Antarc-
unspoiled forest land known as Acadia National tica and Greenland, glaciers are found on nearly
Park. (4) Since the island sits on the boundary line every continent, even Africa. (3) Presently, 10% of
between the temperate and sub-Arctic zones the land area is covered with glaciers. (4) Glacial ice
island supports the flora and fauna of both zones as often appears blue because ice absorbs all other col-
well as beach, inland, and alpine plants. (5) Lies in ors but reflects blue. (5) Almost 90% of an iceberg
a major bird migration lane and is a resting spot for is below water; only about 10% shows above water.
many birds. (6) The establishment of Acadia (6) What makes glaciers unique is their ability to
National Park in 1916 means that this natural mon- move? (7) Due to sheer mass, glaciers flow like very
ument will be preserved and that it will be available slow rivers. (8) Some glaciers are as small as football
to all people, not just the wealthy. (7) Visitors to fields, while others grow to be over one hundred
Acadia may receive nature instruction from the park kilometers long.
naturalists as well as enjoy camping, hiking, cycling,
and boating. (8) Or they may choose to spend time
at the archeological museum learning about the
Stone Age inhabitants of the island.
224
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
34. Which of the following sentences is a run-on 36. Which of the following sentences represents the
sentence? best revision of Part 5?
a. Part 4 a. New violence-prevention programs in urban
b. Part 3 middle schools help reduce the crime rate by
c. Part 2 teaching both victims and perpetrators the
d. Part 1 skills of conflict resolution, by instructing how
to apply reason to disputes, and by changing
35. Which of the following sentences contains an attitudes towards violence and towards the
error in punctuation? need to retaliate.
a. Part 3 b. New violence-prevention programs in urban
b. Part 4 middle schools help reduce the crime rate by
c. Part 5 teaching both victims and perpetrators of
d. Part 6 such violence the skills of conflict resolution;
how to apply reason to disputes; as well as by
Questions 36 and 37 are based on the following passage. changing attitudes towards achieving respect
through violence and towards the need to
(1) Adolescents are at high risk for violent crimes. retaliate.
(2) Although they make up only 14% of the popu- c. New violence-prevention programs in urban
lation age 12 and over, 30% of all violent crimes— middle schools help reduce the crime rate.
1.9 million—were committed against them. (3) They teach both victims and perpetrators of
such violence the skills of conflict resolution:
Because crimes against adolescents are likely to be
how to apply reason to disputes, as well as by
committed by offenders of the same age (as well as
changing attitudes towards achieving respect
same sex and race), preventing violence among and
through violence and towards the need to
against adolescents is a twofold challenge. (4) Ado-
retaliate.
lescents are at risk of being both victims and perpe-
d. New violence-prevention programs in urban
trators of violence. (5) New violence-prevention
middle schools help reduce the crime rate by
programs in urban middle schools help reduce the
teaching both victims and perpetrators of
crime rate by teaching both victims and perpetrators
such violence the skills of conflict resolution,
of such violence the skills of conflict resolution, how
how to apply reason to disputes, as well as to
to apply reason to disputes, as well as by changing
change attitudes towards achieving respect
attitudes towards achieving respect through vio-
through violence and towards the need to
lence and towards the need to retaliate. (6) These
retaliate.
programs provide a safe place for students to discuss
their conflicts and therefore prove appealing to stu-
37. Which of the following should be used in place
dents at risk.
of the underlined word in Part 2 of the passage?
a. will be
b. are
c. is
d. was
225
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
39. Which of the following numbered parts should
Questions 38–40 are based on the following passage.
be revised to reduce its unnecessary repetition?
(1) Cuttlefish are very intriguing little animals. (2) a. Part 9
The cuttlefish resembles a rather large squid and is, b. Part 5
like the octopus, a member of the order of c. Part 6
cephalopods. (3) Although they are not considered d. Part 2
the most highly evolved of the cephalopods, cuttle-
40. Which of the following changes should be made
fish are extremely intelligent. (4) ______________.
(5) While observing them, it is hard to tell who is in the final sentence?
doing the watching, you or the cuttlefish. (6) Since a. Change For to If.
the eye of the cuttlefish is very similar in structure to b. Change allow to allot.
the human eye, cuttlefish can give you the impres- c. Change each to both.
sion that you are looking into the eyes of a wizard d. Change hoover to hover.
who has metamorphosed himself into a squid with
very human eyes.
S ection 3: Writing (Part B—
(7) Cuttlefish are also highly mobile and fast
Writing Sample)
creatures. (8) They come equipped with a small jet
located just below the tentacles that can expel water
to help them move. (9) For navigation, ribbons of Carefully read the writing topic that follows, then pre-
flexible fin on each side of the body allow cuttlefish pare a multiple-paragraph writing sample of 300–600
to hoover, move, stop, and start. words on that topic. Make sure your essay is well-
organized and that you support your central argument
38. Which of the following sentences, if inserted into with concrete examples.
the blank numbered 4, would be most consistent
with the paragraph’s development and tone? In his play, The Admirable Crighton, J. M. Barrie
a. Curious and friendly, cuttlefish tend, in the wrote “Courage is the thing. All goes if courage
wild, to hover near a diver so they can get a goes.”
good look, and in captivity, when a researcher Write an essay about a time in your life when
slips a hand into the tanks, cuttlefish tend to you had the courage to do something or face some-
grasp it with their tentacles in a hearty but thing difficult, or when you feel you fell short. What
gentle handshake. did you learn from the experience?
b. The cuttlefish can be cooked and eaten like its
less tender relatives, the squid and octopus,
but must still be tenderized before cooking in
order not to be exceedingly chewy.
c. Cuttlefish are hunted as food not only by
many sea creatures, but also by people; they
are delicious when properly cooked.
d. Cuttlefish do not have an exoskeleton; instead
their skin is covered with chromataphors.
226
- – THEA PRACTICE EXAM 2 –
some patients are genetically predisposed, or
A nswer Explanations
susceptible, to some diseases.
8. a. The last sentence of the second paragraph indi-
Section 1: Reading
cates that the report advised caution in using . . .
1. b. The passage discusses the negative effect of seg-
predictive tests.
regated schools on public school students, which
9. b. See the last sentence of the fifth paragraph,
indicates that the plaintiffs in the case were pub-
which states that effective treatment can be started
lic school students. Though the case is called
in a few hundred infants.
Brown v. Board of Education, paragraph 5 makes
10. d. The first paragraph says that the report addres-
it clear that the plaintiffs are the winners of the
sed concerns about protecting confidentiality.
case, so that public school students, not board
11. c. The last sentence of the fourth paragraph states
members, prevailed.
that careful pilot studies . . . need to be done first.
2. d. Throughout the passage there is discussion of
Choices a and b are not mentioned in regard to
the 14th Amendment, and its date is given as
mandatory screening; choice d is illogical.
1868. This would indicate that the phrase post-
12. d. See the fifth paragraph: Newborn screening is
War Amendments refers to the 14th and other
the most common type of genetic screening today.
amendments passed after the Civil War.
13. d. The opening sentence tells readers that making
3. a. The word reargument indicates that the argu-
a list of pros and cons is a technique of utilitar-
ments were made at least once before. The other
ian reasoning. Thus, readers who have used this
answer choices contain information that is not
technique will realize they are already familiar
addressed in the passage and are therefore too
with the basic principles of utilitarianism.
specific to be accurate.
14. b. The second sentence explains the main argu-
4. b. Paragraph 3 deals extensively with the state of
ment of utilitarianism—that we should use
public education at the time the 14th Amend-
consequences to determine our course of
ment was passed. The information contained in
action. Thus posits is used here in the sense of
choices a and c is not indicated by the passage;
asserts.
nor does it appear that the Court simply dis-
15. c. The passage opens with an explanation that
agreed with Congress, as stated in choice d.
according to utilitarianism, only the conse-
5. c. This choice provides the most complete and
quences of our actions are morally relevant. It is
accurate organization of the material in this
further stated that an action is considered
passage. The other choices contain information
morally good if it creates good (happiness).
which is addressed only briefly, or not at all, in
16. d. It is explained in paragraph 2 of the text that the
the passage.
utilitarian principle of choosing actions that
6. c. Paragraph 3 states that when the 14th Amend-
create the greatest amount of good (happiness) for
ment was being adopted, compulsory school
the greatest number of people.
attendance was virtually unknown. No men-
17. b. The last two sentences of the passage explain
tion is made in the paragraph of choices a or b;
two aspects of utilitarianism that complicate
choice d is refuted in the paragraph, at least
the decision-making process: that it is not
with regard to the South.
always clear what the consequences of an action
7. b. Susceptible means being liable to be affected by
will be (whether they will bring short- or long-
something. According to the third paragraph,
term happiness and to what degree), and that
227
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