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Đề cương ôn tập học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020-2021 - Trường THPT Thái Phiên

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh có tài liệu ôn tập những kiến thức cơ bản, nâng cao khả năng ghi nhớ và chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp tới được tốt hơn. Hãy tham khảo Đề cương ôn tập học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020-2021 - Trường THPT Thái Phiên dưới đây. TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN TỔ NGOẠI NGỮ ĐỀ CƢƠNG ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II- NĂM HỌC: 2020 - 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11-CT 7 NĂM I. MẪU MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 2 (hệ 7 năm; tổng thời gian làm bài: 60 phút) Mức độ nhận thức Tổng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụn

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  1. TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN TỔ NGOẠI NGỮ ĐỀ CƢƠNG ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II- NĂM HỌC: 2020 - 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11-CT 7 NĂM I. MẪU MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 2 (hệ 7 năm; tổng thời gian làm bài: 60 phút) Mức độ nhận thức Tổng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao TT Kĩ năng Tỉ lệ (%) Thời gian Tỉ lệ (%) Thời Tỉ lệ Thời gian Tỉ lệ (%) Thời gian Tỉ lệ (%) Thời gian (phút) gian (%) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 1 Nghe 10 3 5 2 5 2 20 7 Ngôn 2 10 3 10 5 20 8 ngữ 3 Đọc 10 4 5 3 5 3 20 10 4 Viết 5 2 5 4 5 5 14 20 20 5 Nói 5 5 2 5 5 13 20 15 Tổng 40 12 30 16 20 5 10 27 100 60 Tỉ lệ (% ) 40 30 20 10 100 60 Tỉ lệ chung 70 30 100 (%) II. NỘI DUNG KIẾN THỨC: 1. Từ vựng: Từ vựng theo chủ đề từ Unit 9 đến Unit 15 (trừ Unit 14) (The post office, nature in danger, Sources of energy, The Asian Games, Hobbies, Space Conquest) 2. Ngữ pháp: - Relative clauses (Defining and non-defining relative clauses, Relative pronouns with prepositions, Relative clauses replaced by participles and to infinitive, Omission of relative pronouns), - Cleft sentences - Conjunctions - Could- be able to - Tag questions
  2. III. MỘT SỐ ĐỀ MINH HỌA SAMPLE TEST 1 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM LISTENING Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1 point) STATEMENTS T F Question 1. People in mountainous areas have to gather wood to use as fuel. Question 2. Biogas helps solve the problem of outdoor air pollution. Question 3. The use of renewable energy sources in developing countries is on the decrease. Question 4. In the future, the wind and the sun will be used as the main environmentally friendly energy sources. Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to answer the questions below. You will hear the recording twice. (1 point) Question 5. What date is Alice‟s birthday? A. on 12th July B. on 14th July th C. on 15 July D. on 16th July Question 6. What was the problem at Alice‟s party last year? A. Nobody had fun B. It was hard work C. Hardly any people came D. It took a long time to clean up afterwards Question 7. What was the problem with Freddie‟s Pizza House? A. The food was bad B. The service was terrible C. The pizzas were expensive D. The waiters were very unfriendly Question 8. Where is the burger restaurant? A. on Hill Street. B. on Penny Road C. on Arthur Street D. near Jack‟ house Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.5 point) Question 9. A. pesticide B. city C. centre D. campaign Question 10. A. small B. supply C. sure D. species Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1,5 points) Question 11. The Olympic Games is one of the biggest sporting ________ all over the world. A. problems B. athletes C. cultures D. events Question 12. A nuclear reactor releases ________, which is dangerous to the environment A. radiation B. heat C. energy D. carbon dioxide Question 13. The chemical ________ from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty. A. pollution B. pollutants C. polluted D. pollute Question 14. Human beings are ________ for the changes in the environment. A. account B. faulty C. blame D. responsible Question 15. Samuel Johnson, ________ was born in 1709, was the son of a bookseller. A. who B. whose C. whom D. that Question 16. We have no milk in the fridge, ________? A. do we B. don‟t we C. have we D. haven‟t we Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1 point) As more and more countries become (17) , there will be more and more competitions for petroleum for cars, home heating, and industry, while burning petroleum contributes greatly (18) acid rain, it is less polluted than coal. Unfortunately petroleum is more expensive than coal and the supply of petroleum will eventually (19) out. Therefore, there will be a pressure to burn coal for energy. Coal is a much dirtier energy source than petroleum. Since we already know how acid rain is, it is
  3. important that we increase our efforts to find a not- polluting source of energy as quickly as possible, (20) . we can avoid further environmental damage Question 17. A. industry B. industrial C. industrialize D. industrialized Question 18. A. to B. on C. for D. with Question 19. A. use B. eat C. run D. make Question 20. A. but B. so that C. if D. because Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question. (1 point) The Asian Games owes its origins to small Asian multi-sport competitions held every two years from 1813 to 1934 under a number of names. The Far Eastern Championship Games were created to show unity and cooperation among three nations: Japan, the Philippines and China. The first games were held in Manila, the Philippines in 1931. Other Asian nations participated after they were organized. It was discontinued in 1938 when Japan invaded China and consequently annexed the Philipines which led to the expansion of World War II in the Pacific. After World War II, a number of Asian countries became independent. Many of the new independent Asian countries wanted to use a new type of competition where Asian dominance (authority. should not be shown by violence and should be strengthened by mutual understanding. In August 1948, during the 14th Olympic Game in London, India representative Guru Dutt Sondhi proposed to sports leaders of the Asian teams the idea of having discussions about holding the Asian Games. They agreed to form the Asian Athletic Federation. A preparatory was set up to draft the charter for the Asian amateur athletic federation. In February, 1949, the Asian athletic federation was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was decided to hold the first Asian Games in 1951 in New Delhi, the capital of India. They added that the Asian Games would be regularly held once every four years. Question 21. The text is about . A. the origin of the Asian Games B. the Far Eastern Championship Games C. the Games in Manila D. the relationship of Japan, the Philippines, and China Question 22. The Far Eastern Championship Games . A. were held in Manila after World War II B. were held in Japan C. were attended by all countries in Asia D. had the participation of only three nations Question 23. The word discontinued in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. repeated B. continued C. discovered D. cancelled Question 24. The Asian Games . A. were suggested establishing by a Londoner B. were first held in China C. were first held in India D. were held in the same year of the 14th Olympic Games Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. ( 0.5 point ) Question 25. In the basketball, two teams compete against each other to determine who can score the more points. A B C D Question 26. To prepare for the coming Asian Games, all athletes are trained hard and strict so that they A B C D will get the highest achievements. II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN WRITING 1. Rewrite the sentences as directed. Question 27. Could you iron those trousers? They're hanging up behind the door. (use a Relative clause)  ___________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. The dog grabbed at the piece of meat and ran away. (use a Cleft Sentence)  ___________________________________________________________________________. 2. In about 130 words, write a paragraph about one of your hobbies, following these guidelines. (1.0 point) * what your hobby is * when you started it * how you enjoy it
  4. * how much time you spend on it * why you enjoy it * how long you think you will continue with your hobby
  5. SAMPLE TEST 2 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM LISTENING Listen to a teacher giving instructions on how to use online English language materials and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. STATEMENTS T F Question 1. The speaker thinks the students never get tired of things like books, blackboards, cassettes and CD players. Question 2. Triple E means Easy Effective English Question 3. You just type some key words and click on the search engine button to see hundreds of websites. Question 4. There are sites where you record your own voice and listen to yourself. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct answer A, B, or C to answer the questions below. You will hear the recording twice. Question 5. What is Tom's opinion about Linda's choice of clothes? A. He thinks that her parents are right. B. He sympathises with Linda. C. He disagrees with Linda's parents. D. He agrees with Linda. Question 6. What do you think Linda will do after talking to Tom? A. She may start saving money to buy clothes. B. She may follow her parents' advice. C. She may offer her parents some advice. D. She may not follow her parents‟ advice Question 7. Why don't Tom's parents want him to play computer games? A. They think some of games are harmful. B. They think playing computer games makes him neglect his studies. C. They think none of the games are useful. D. They think playing computer games doesn‟t help me to relax. Question 8. What do Tom's parents want him to do? A. Play a musical instrument. B. Do more outdoor activities. C. Browse the Internet to find information. D. Spend his free time in a more useful time. LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 9. A. energy B. expensive C. potential D. fuel Question 10. A. psychology B. predict C. plastic D. stop Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11. If we don‟t have telephones, we can _________ a phone call at the post office. A. do B. take C. make D. put Question 12. He set a new world ________ of 1 minute 40 seconds. A. record B. medal C. scoring D. champion Question 13. Sulphur dioxide is one of several ________ that are released into the atmosphere by coal- fired power stations. A. polluting B. polluted C. pollutants D. pollution Question 14. People are getting more _________ and demanding in choosing a kind of recreation and entertainment. A. relaxing B. sophisticated C. satisfied D. accompanied Question 15. An Australian naturalist, _________ I worked closely in the 1980s, discovered this particular orchid. A. with whom B. whom C. who D. with who Question 16. The children won‟t want to go to bed early, _________? A. do they B. does he C. will they D. won‟t he
  6. READING Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Today wildlife experts agree that elephants are in great danger and need human protection to survive. People have (17)_______ much of the elephant‟s natural environment by clearing land for settlement and farms. Many African and Asian nations have set aside land to protect the habitats of elephants and other (18) _______ animals. This land lies in national parks and in areas called reserves. But some wildlife experts fear that this amount of land is not large (19) _______ to save many wild elephants. Illegal hunting for ivory also (20) _______ the survival of wild elephants. Laws forbid elephant hunting in national parks and in reserves, and they limit the number that sport hunters may kill outside these areas. Sport hunting can usually be controlled, but poachers with automatic weapons can kill thousands of elephants yearly. Question 17. A. wiped B. killed C. swept D. destroyed Question 18. A. wild B. wildly C. wildlife D. wilderness Question 19. A. much B. as C. too D. enough Question 20. A. terrifies B. threatens C. shocks D. frightens Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question. The last two decades have seen enormous changes in the way people's lives are affected by IT. Twenty years ago, few people had access to a computer while today most people use them at work, home or school and use of e-mail and the Internet is an everyday event. These developments have brought many benefits to our lives. E-mail makes communication much easier and more immediate. This has numerous benefits for business, commerce, and education. The World Wide Web means that information on every conceivable subject is now available to us. Clearly, for many people this has made life much easier and more convenient. However, not all the effects of the new technology have been beneficial. Many people feel that the widespread use of e-mail is destroying traditional forms of communication such as letter writing, telephone and face-to-face conversation. In addition, the huge size of the Web means it is almost impossible to control and regulate. This has led to many concerns regarding children accessing unsuitable websites. In conclusion, developments in IT have brought many benefits, yet I believe developments relating to new technology in the future are likely to produce many negative effects that will need to be addressed very carefully. Question 21. According to the passage, E-mail __________. A. reduces face-to-face contact B. can be checked quickly and easily C. is used only in business D. takes a lot of time to transmit Question 22. The World Wide Web and e-mail communication _________. A. causes a busy and exciting life. B. have also been used for education purpose C. is difficult to get access to D. is destroying traditional customs Question 23. What does the IT stand for? A. Information Transfer B. Information Transmission C. Information Theory D. Information Technology Question 24. Which sentence is NOT mentioned? A. The World Wide Web provides information. B. The World Wide Web is difficult to navigate. C. E-mail communication is quick and easy. D. The World Wide Web is difficult to control. WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. Question 25. It was in this school whom I studied when I was a little girl. A B C D Question 26. The crew of Apollo 11 successful completed their historic mission. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN WRITING 1. Rewrite the sentences as directed. (0,5 point) Question 27. The film is about a king. His ambition was to rule the world.(use a Relative clause)  ___________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. Chris didn‟t have time to take a holiday. Sheila didn‟t have time to take a holiday. (use “neither .... nor…”)  ___________________________________________________________________________. 2. In about 130 words, write a paragraph about your collection, real or imaginary, following these guidelines. (1.0 point) * name of your collection
  7. * how you collect them * how you keep them * when you started your collection * how you classify them * why you collect them * your plan for the future
  8. SAMPLE TEST 3 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM LISTENING Listen to a man talking about solar energy and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) STATEMENTS T F Question 1: Resources on Earth are enough to supply our energy needs. Question 2: In the future, the speaker wishes all houses will use solar energy. Question 3: All solar panels and some other equipments are free. Question 4: The speaker thinks that solar powered – cars will be driven. Listen to a man giving some information about sport and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each question below. You will the recording twice. (1.0 point) Question 5: What is his favorite sport? A. American football B. Football – the kind with round ball C. Basketball D. Baseball Question 6: Where did he play football with his friends? A. On the playground B. In the stadium C. In the park D. On the street Question 7: What is Japanese national sport? A. Sumo B. Karate C. Fencing D. Judo Question 8: Which is NOT mentioned as an advantage of sport? A. It brings people together from all over the world B. It keeps people healthy C. It improves people‟s appearance D. It helps players stay fit. LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. ( 0.5 point ) Question 9. A. within B. without C. strengthen D. clothing Question 10. A. spacious B. collect C. document D. courteous Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. ( 1,5 points ) Question 11. My friend Dave was really interested in my best stamp, so I ___________ it away to him. A. gave B. threw C. brought D. put Question 12. Although nuclear power is clean and plentiful, it is not___________. A. unsafe B. dangerous C. safe D. renewed Question 13. The 14th Asian Games attracted 9,919 ____________from 44 countries . A. participate B. participation C. to participate D. participants Question 14. He was respected by the people with ___________ he worked. A. who B. that C. whom D. those Question 15. I sent a ___________ to my mother saying I had arrived safely. A. telegraph B. telegram C. telephone D. telescope Question 16. Lisa‟s been able to play the flute since she was six, ___________? A. can‟t she B. isn‟t she C. wasn‟t he D. hasn‟t she READING Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1 point) Up to now, Thailand has been the host country of the Asian Games four times. In 1996, Thailand held the Games (17) _________ the first time. It was the 5th Games with 18 countries (18) _________ . In 1970, South Korea dropped its plan to host the Games (19) ___________ security threats from North Korea, and the previous host Thailand administered the Games in Bangkok using the fund of South Korea. In 1978, Pakistan dropped its plan to host the Games because of conflicts with Bangladesh and India. Thailand (20) ___________ to help and the Games was held in Bangkok, Thailand from 6 to 20 December 1998. Question 17. A. in B. about C. for D. at Question 18. A. to compete B. competing C. competed D. compete Question 19. A. due to B. as C. despite D. because Question 20. A. required B. advised C. offered D. suggested
  9. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question. ( 1 point ) Although they are safe to use in a short term, coal, gas and oil present a long –term threat to the environment. All three types of fossil fuels produce carbon dioxide in far greater quantities than plants can use. The carbon dioxide then accumulates in the atmosphere and may even increase the earth‟s “ heat load” and lead to global rises in temperature. Furthermore, all three fossil fuels are non-renewable forms of energy. Geothermal power is unlikely ever to be an energy source of major importance. It is limited and is exploitable in only a few places. Hydro-power offers a much more useful source of energy. It is also renewable but its availability is limited. Dams cannot be built in certain areas. Wind power is a pollution- free source of renewable energy but it cannot be used in many parts of the world where there is insufficient wind. Wave power is non-polluting and doesn‟t add to the earth‟s heat but it is ineffective where the sea is usually calm. Solar energy is renewable, it doesn‟t cause pollution and it doesn‟t add to the earth‟s heat load. Unfortunately, solar power is not distributed equally and it also requires expensive equipment. Finally, nuclear power provides a very efficient and renewable power source. However, not only is there a great danger of leaks or accidents but there is also the problem of the disposal of radioactive waste. Question 21. The threat caused by fossil fuels in the long term is ___________ A. the greater quantities of carbon dioxide in plants. B. the safety of using them. C. the increase in global temperature. D. the non- renewable forms of energy. Question 22. The following renewable energies are not polluted EXCEPT ___________ A. wind power. B. wave power. C. solar power. D. nuclear power. Question 23. Geothermal power is less popular than other renewable energies because ___________ A. it costs a lot to exploit. B. it‟s not available in many places. C. it‟s polluted. D. it‟s dangerous sometimes. Question 24. What is NOT true about the passage? A. Like any other renewable energy, solar power has some disadvantages. B. The use of solar power and wind power depends on the weather. C. Fossil fuels are unlimited and safe to use in the distant future. D. Where dams cannot be built, hydro-power is impossible. WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. ( 0.5 point ) Question 25. I have two brothers, both of them are studying in England. A B C D Question 26. The successful of Gagarin„s flight attracted worldwide attention and made him a hero. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN WRITING 1. Rewrite the sentences as directed. (0,5 point) Question 27. He's the criminal. The police are looking for him.(use a Relative clause)  ___________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. David doesn‟t play tennis. David doesn‟t play table - tennis. (use “neither .... nor”)  ___________________________________________________________________________. 2. In about 130 words, write a paragraph about your favourite sport, following these guidelines. (1.0 point) * What is the sport? * How did you first know about it? * How often do you play it? * Why is it your favourite sport? *
  10. SAMPLE TEST 4 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM LISTENING Listen to a student talking about his hobby and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) STATEMENTS T F Question 1. The writer got started his hobby when he was fifteen. Question 2. His parents were interested in reading fairy tales and other stories to him. Question 3. The writer started with simple ABC books. Question 4. Now the writer reads anything that is avaible You will hear an interview with a teenager called Simon about going to an indoor climbing centre that has a climbing wall and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question below. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Question 5. Simon's mum decided to take him to the climbing centre because ________. A. she had enjoyed going there B. her friends had recommended it C. Simon had been there with his school D. he was sick Question 6. Before he went to the centre. Simon was ________. A. worried about going climbing there B. interested in seeing the climbing wall C. satisfied with the centre D. disappointed to hear it was all indoor Question 7. Simon says that at the centre there were _________. A. lots of people when it opened B many different types of people C. no other people his age D. lots of games he liked Question 8. What did Simon think about the climbing wall? A. He thought it looked very high. B. He was afraid he might fall. C. He found the foot holes helpful. D. He thought it was easy to climb. LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.5 point) Question 9. A. swing B. sweat C. swan D. answer Question 10. A. fuels B. shops C. efforts D. tanks Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1.5 points) Question 11. Yuri Gagarin is the first man to ______ into space. A. fly B. take C. set D. get Question 12. We should develop such _______ sources of energy such as solar energy and water energy. A. traditional B. alternative C. infinite D. surprising Question 13. The polar bear‟s ________ depends on its ability to catch fish. A. survive B. survival C. surviving D. survivor Question 14. The Olympic Games is one of the biggest sporting ________ all over the world. A. problems B. athletes C. cultures D. events Question 15. The service _________ we received from the post office was just wonderful. A. which B. why C. whom D. whose Question 16. His son has a bicycle, _______? A. doesn‟t he B. does he C. has he D. hasn‟t he READING Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 point) On December 21 1968, the United States launched Apollo 8 from the Kennedy Space Center. The astronauts on (17) ________ Frank Borman. James Lovell and William Anders, were the first humans to journey to the moon. They (18) ________ the moon ten times and sent television pictures of its surface back to the earth. On July 16 1969 Apollo 11 was launched. Neil Amstrong, Edwin Aldrin and Michale Collins went (19) ________ space with the lunar module, the Ealge, (20)________ would land on the moon. Six hours
  11. after a successful landing on the moon, Neil Amstrong was ready to leave the Eagle. He wore the special space-suit and heavy boots. He placed his foot on the moon‟s surface and said. “That‟s one small step for man, one giant leap for mankind.” Question 17. A. ship B. space C. board D. deck Question 18. A. orbited B. surrounded C. circled D. rounded Question 19. A. away B. into C. to D. up Question 20. A. who B. where C. what D. which Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question. (1.0 point) Stamp collecting is the collecting of postage stamps and related objects, such as envelopes or packages with stamps on them. It is one of the world‟s most popular hobbies, with estimates of the number of collectors ranging up to 20 million in the United States alone. Many casual collectors enjoy accumulating stamps without worrying about the tiny details, but the creation of a large or comprehensive collection generally requires some philatelic knowledge. This is especially important for those who intend to spend large amounts for stamps. Stamp collectors are an important source of revenue for some small countries that create limited runs of elaborate stamps designed mainly to be bought by stamp collectors. The stamps produced by these countries far exceed the postal needs of the countries. Some collectors, observing the generally rising prices of rare stamps, have taken to Philatelic Investment. Rare stamps are among the most portable of tangible investments, and are easy to store. They offer an attractive alternative to art, other collectible investments, and precious metals. Question 21. The estimated number of stamp collectors in the United States is ________. A. 30 million B. 20 million C. 10 million D. 15 million Question 22. Philatelic knowledge is especially important for ________. A. many casual collectors enjoy B. the postal needs of the countries C. some small countries D. those who intend to spend large amounts for stamps Question 23. Why have some collectors taken to Philatelic investment? _ Because they ________. A. have observed the generally rising prices of stamps. B. have observed the generally rising prices of rare stamps. C. have observed the generally low prices of stamps. D. haven‟t observed the generally rising prices of stamps. Question 24. The word they in the paragraph 4 refers to ________. A. Stamp collectors B. Small countries C. Rare stamps D. The prices of rare stamps WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. (0.5 point) Question 25. It was only yesterday which Mark told me that his parents were coming to stay with us. A B C D Question 26. Regularly exercises will help you feel fresher and fitter. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN WRITING 1. Rewrite the sentence as directed. (0,5 point) Question 27. My father usually complains about my students whenever they go to my house.(use a Cleft sentence)  ___________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. Tom didn‟t come to the party last night. Ann didn‟t come to the party last night. (use “neither .... nor”)  ___________________________________________________________________________. 2. It is a fact that many species of animals are in danger of extinction. In about 130 words, write a paragraph about the causes of the problem, following these guidelines. (1.0 point) * habitat of destruction * commercial exploitation * pollution
  12. SAMPLE TEST 5 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM LISTENING Listen to a conversation between a boy , Jim and his mother, decide if the statements are correct , put a tick (√) in the box under A for Yes, if it is not correct , put a tick (√) in the box under B for No. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) STATEMENTS Yes No Question 1. Jim‟s bicycle needs to be mended. Question 2. His mother thinks a mountain bike is suitable for their area. Question 3. She encourages Jim to save his money better. Question 4. His mother offers to lend him some money. Listen to the part of a radio about classical music and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question below. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Question 5. This week‟s prize is _________. A. a music cassette B. two concert tickets C. a classical CD D. a new dictionary Question 6. The person who wrote the music lived in _________. A. Italy B. Spain C. France D. Germany Question 7. What else shares the title of the music? A. a garden. B. a play. C. a playground D. a park Question 8. If you know the competition answer, you should ring_________, A. 0108 937 224 B. 0018 739 242 C. 0018 937 224 D. 0108 397 224 LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.5 point) Question 9. A. stopped B. replaced C. increased D. naked Question 10. A. nature B. nation C. feature D. question Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1.5 points) Question 11. The first person _________ the ball will be the winner. A. to catch B. catching C. to be caught D. caught Question 12. Badly polluted air can _________ illness , and even death. A. cause B. lead C. result D. release Question 13. How many gold medals have the Japanese _________won in the first three days? A. athletes B. athletics C. athletic D. athlete Question 14. Our sports performances have been _________ considerably over recent years. A. advancing B. occupied C. accomplished D. increasing Question 15. The name of the girl to _______he wanted to give a valentine‟s present was Lan. A. whom B. who C. that D. whose Question 16. She had to go home early, _______? A. didn‟t she B. hadn‟t she C. doesn‟t she D. mustn‟t she READING Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 point) Hobbies are activities in which one participates strictly for amusement. They help one (17)________ a mental and emotional balance. Hobby can cost almost anything. Music is the most popular. (18) ________, many people all over the world play pianos simply for relaxing and fun in their free time, and they do not play (19)_________. Sports provide other favorite hobbies. Cycling, running, tennis, and countless other sports are enjoyed by millions of people during (20) _________ leisure time. Question 17. A. to maintain B. maintaining C. maintained D. to be maintained Question 18. A. For example B. In addition C. In general D. On purpose Question 19. A. professionally B. carefully C. interestingly D. excellently Question 20. A. their B. our C. your D. its
  13. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question. (1.0 point) How many planets are there in our galaxy? That‟s a tricky question to answer. Are there other planets that support life? That‟s exactly what the Kepler mission hopes to discover. NASA launched the Kepler space telescope, designed to find habitable planets, in 2009. So far it has discovered five new Earth-sized planets beyond our solar system. These planets are hotter than the Earth -much too hot for life as we know it. The Kepler team predict that they will need at least three years (and possibly longer) to find an Earth-like planet. The simplest requirement for a planet to have life is for there to be liquid water (not frozen or gas) so the distance from the planet‟s sun and therefore temperature are important. There also needs to be the correct amount of air. If a planet is as small as Mars (half the size of Earth) its weak gravity means that it can‟t hold on to air molecules. If a planet is Neptune sized (four times bigger than Earth) it has very strong gravity and too much air. So size matters too. The cost for the mission is approximately six hundred million dollars. It is scheduled to observe until 2013 but this could be extended. Will we be sad if we discover we are alone in our galaxy or happy if we find that we share it with other life forms? Question 21.What is the passage about? A. Planets in our solar system. B. The difference between the Earth and other planets. C. Space exploration to find habitable planets. D. NASA‟s missions to explore the outer planets. Question 22. What is the Kepler space telescope looking for? A. new planets in our galaxy. B. life on other planets. C. new galaxies. D. objects in space Question 23. A planet can support life if it has _________. A. carbon and oxygen B. gas and water C. heat and gravity D. water and air Question 24. The word “alone” in the paragraph 4 could be best replaced by which of the following? A. with no other people B. with other people C. by themselves D. on your own WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. (0.5 point) Question 25. It was in 1964 when Bermuda got its name. A B C D Question 26. The Queen Elizabeth is the largest ship built on the island. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN WRITING 1. Rewrite the sentences as directed. (0,5 point) Question 27. I met my wife when I was a student at teacher training college. (use a Cleft sentence)  ___________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. This prize will mean an honour for him. It will mean an honour for us (use “not only … but also”)  ___________________________________________________________________________. 2. In about 130 words, write a paragraph about a famous athlete you like or admire. (1.0 point) The end V. Một số đề tham khảo SỞ GD&ĐT TP. ĐÀ NẴNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II - Năm Học 2018 - 2019 TRƢỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH– LỚP 11 - CHƢƠNG TRÌNH CHUẨN Đề chính thức Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề thi 191 SECTION A (8.0pts) – MULTIPLE CHOICE I. PHONETICS: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
  14. 1. A. endangeredB. influenced C. decreased D. established 2. A. capacity B. billiards C. subscriber D. weightlifting Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. 3. A. distance B. schedule C. wildlife D. reserve 4. A. environment B. disadvantage C. technology D. petroleum II. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR, STRUCTURE. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the sentences or do as directed: 5. Everyone is really satisfied with the _______conditions of this post office. A. security B. secure C. securely D. securities 6. The librarian___________ I borrowed the dictionary asked me to use it carefully. A. to who B. to whom C. from that D. from whom 7. This multi-sport event is an occasion when friendship and ________ are built and promoted. A. knowledge B. solidarity C. effort D. enthusiasm 8. She is talking about the author __________ book is one of the best-sellers this year. A. that B. which C. whose D. who 9. We visited the church __________ in France in the 19th century. A. which built B. which is built C. built D. was built 10. Let‟s enjoy the chicken soup first, _______________? A. shall we B. don‟t you C. should you D. shall you 11. The fire was so big , but the firemen _______________ stop it. A. were able to B. could C. couldn‟t D. weren‟t able to 12. The main threat to the ______ of these creatures comes from their loss of habitat. A. survive B. survival C. survivor D. surviving 13. The old man _________a green suit is a famous energy researcher. A. is wearing B. whom is wearing C. to wear D. wearing 14. What exactly is the influence of pollution _________________ the environment ? A. in B. on C. at D. with 15. Gas and oil ________ always increases in cold weather. A. consumption B. consume C. consumer D. consuming 16. ________ taught me how to distinguish footprints of different animals. A. My grandfather that B. It is my grandfather which C. It was my grandfather that D. My grandfather who 17. What newspaper do you want to __________to? A. register B. subscribe C. buy D. deliver 18. Neither the computer nor the printers ________ properly.
  15. A. works B. is working C. has worked D. work Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. 19. They have told (A) me some information (B), most of that (C) is very useful (D) 20. It was (A) only yesterday which (B) Mark told me that (C) his parents werecoming to stay (D) with us. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 21. Waiter: “Here‟s your bill, sir.” – Customer: “______” A. Don‟t mention it. B. Can I pay by credit card? C. What do you have? D. You‟re welcome. 22. Tony:“Wouldyouliketohavedinnerwithmetonight?” Cindy:“___________” A.Thanks,butI‟mafraidI‟vegotsomethingplanned B.I‟mterriblysorry.ButIhavetodisagree. C.Thanks.Andyou? D.Sure.Goahead. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) 23. Wind energy is not only plentiful and infinite but also clean and safe. A. uncountable B. unlimited C. limited D. inflexible Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. 24. Man-made satellites leave the earth at very great speed. A. natural B. artificial C. manned D. human III. READING 1. Read the passage and then choose the correct option to complete each blank Human beings (25)____ to protect only the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment. We tend to pay more (26)____ to animals on land than any other large sea animals. Environmentalists have not done much enough to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks (27)____ population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction. Sharks are among the oldest creatures on Earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million years. The fact that they have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proofs of their efficiency and adaptability to change environments. It is time (28)____ human beings to begin considering the protection of sharks as an important part of a program for protection of our natural environment. 25.A. seem B. make C. advise D. let 26. A. pleasure B. attention C. notice D. fun 27. A. that B. whom C. whose D. which 28. A. for that B. when C. for which D. for 2. Read the passage and choose the item among A,B,C or D that best answers the questions: A new study shows that women can reduce their chances of developing heart disease by jogging for about three hours every week. The researchers at Harvard University Medical in Boston have just reported the results of the study on the New England Journal of Medicine. The study is the first to show
  16. the effectiveness of jogging in the developing of heart disease in women. Only a few earlier studies have examined the effects of jogging on the heart, but nearly all have been done on men. The new study involves more than 72,000 women between the ages of forty and sixty-five during a period of eight years. The researchers have found that women who jog at least three hours a week have a thirty to forty percent lower chance of suffering a heart attack than those who do not. This is very useful for all the women to carry out jogging in their daily life. 29. The new study is about __________. A. men and heart attack B. effects of jogging on women‟s heart C. men and jogging D. medicine in Harvard University 30. Who have done the research? A. The journalists on the New England Journal of Medicine B. The researchers at Harvard University Medical in Boston C. Women between the ages of forty and sixty-five D. Some joggers 31. Most of the early researches have been done on __________. A. babies B. children C. women D. men 32. How long does the new research take? A. 3 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. 12 years SECTION B (2.0pts). Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed. 1. All the rubbish that is floating in the sea is a real danger to health. (Reduce the relative clause into present participle phrase) __________________________________________________________. 2. The chickens haven‟t been fed; the pigs haven‟t been fed, either .(Rewrite the sentence, using " neither ........ nor " ) __________________________________________________________. 3. John was the last man in the contest held last year. He reached the top of the mountain (Reduce the relative clause into To-infinitive) __________________________________________________________. 4. Write a complete sentence with the words given. The potential / alternative sources / energy / nature / great. __________________________________________________________. SỞ GD&ĐT TP. ĐÀ NẴNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II - Năm Học 2018 - 2019 TRƢỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH– LỚP 11 - CHƢƠNG TRÌNH CHUẨN Đề chính thức Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề thi 192
  17. SECTION A (8.0pts) – MULTIPLE CHOICE I. PHONETICS: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. mails B. households C. astronauts D. clubs 2. A. sword B. swallow C. sweater D. swimming Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. 3. A. endanger B. disappear C. prohibit D. distribute 4. A. coward B. project C. desire D. honour II. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR, STRUCTURE. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the sentences or do as directed: 5. The Aston Martin is a sport car __________ in Midlands. A. made B. that made C. making D which made 6. When will I have my telephone line ______________at home? A. installed B. installation C. install D. installing 7. The football match __________ my friend played in was very exciting. A. whose B. what C. X D. whom 8. Many kinds of rare animals are in danger of _______________. A. disappearance B. death C. destruction D. extinction 9. Neil Armstrong was the first man _____foot on the moon. A. to try B. to let C. to put D. to set 10. The Asian Games are usually a good chance to promote international _________ A. friends B. friendship C. friendliness D. friendly 11. If the atmosphere is polluted, the solar energy ______ the earth may be dangerous. A. reached B. reaching C. to reach D. reaches 12. Scientists are looking for an __________ way to reduce energy consumption. A. effect B. effection C. effective D. effectively 13. We ordered roast beef. We didn‟t order roast pig. A. It was roast beef that we ordered, not roast pig. B. It is roast beef that we ordered, not roast pig C. It was roast beef that we order, not roast pig D. It was roast beef which we ordered, not roast pig 14. In space, astronauts have to suffer from ________. A. weight B. heaviness C. weightlessness D. pressure 15. The pollution _________ they talked at the conference last week is getting worse. A. whose B. about whichC. in which D. that 16. I am the only representative from our school in the competition, _______________? A. aren‟t I B. am not I C. are I D. aren‟t you 17. All students should be equipped _______ a pocket calculator. A. for B. in C. of D. with
  18. 18. ______the director ______ his secretary are away on business. You have to wait until they return on Friday. A. Both…and B. Either …or C. Neither…nor D. Not only…but also Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word. 19. People in the village no longer use water in that well because of its pollution. A. cleanliness B. garbage C. contamination D. refreshment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. 20. The Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects. A. increasing B. going up C. moving D. making progress Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 21. -What‟s the best place to eat lunch?” - “ ……………………..” A. I‟ll have soup, please. B. I usually eat lunch at twelve. C.There‟s a great restaurant at the corner of the street. D. Twelve would be convenient 22. Nancy and James are talking about their school days. Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives." James: "................ We had sweet memories together then." A. I'm afraid so B. I can‟t agree with you more C.That's nonsense D. I doubt it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. 23. Not only (A) this boy but also his (B) parents likes (C) listening to (D) pop music. 24. You could (A) see the (B) sea in (C) the distance, don‟t you? (D) III. READING 1. Read the passage and then choose the correct option to complete each blank The first stamp (25)____ the world was an English stamp. It was made in 1840. Before that time people paid money (26)____ the postman for every letter they received and the postman didn't give letters to anybody who didn't pay him. An English teacher (27)____ name was Rowland Hill thought much about it. One day he said that people who wrote the letters must pay for them and not the (28)____. He spoke about it to people in the government. Soon all the post offices began to sell little pieces of paper with a stamp on them and stamps have appeared since then. 25. A. of B. in C. on D. beyond 26. A. for B. to C. with D. at 27. A. which B. whom C. that D. whose 28. A. postmen B. writers C. receivers D. getters 2. Read the passage and choose the item among A,B,C or D that best answers the questions: Anyone who thinks that bats are unsafe pets is wrong in most cases. In fact, most species of bats are helpful to human beings. Sixty to seventy percent of bat species eat insects. These bats will eat
  19. anything that they find as they fly through the air at night. Some people even try to attract bats to their property to help control mosquitoes. Other bats are necessary to the pollination of species of plants. Unfortunately, bats are frightening to anyone who believes in the old stories of vampire bats. In reality, only three species of bats feed on blood, usually only from small animals. It is true, however, that vampire bats can spread diseases such as rabies, respiratory syndrome like hard in breathing, dangerous virus, etc. to other species. Even though many people will continue to dislike and fear bats, it is important to remember that they are an important part of the ecology, especially, in rainforests. Anything that endangers to bats in these areas will also affect the regions‟ fragile ecosystems. Anyone who is interested in learning more about bats can visit his or her local library as much as possible to see their value and protect them. Questions 29. What do people often think about bats? A. Bats are dangerous pets B. Bats are helpful pets C. Bats are wild pets D. Bats are useful pets 30. How many percent of bat species eat insects? A. fifty percent B. sixty percent C. seventy percent D. sixty to seventy percent 31. What kind of bat which can spread some risky diseases? A. small bats B. pollinating bats C. vampire bats D. bleeding bats 32. Why do some people try to attract bats to their property? A. to catch them B. to help control mosquitoes C. to add to their collection bats D. to kill them SECTION B (2.0pts). Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed. 1. Write a complete sentence with the words given. The potential / alternative sources / energy / nature / great. ___________________________________________________________________ 2. The chickens haven‟t been fed; the pigs haven‟t been fed, either .(Rewrite the sentence, using " neither ........ nor " ) Neither_____________________________________________________________ 3. All the rubbish that is floating in the sea is a real danger to health. (Reduce the relative clause into present participle phrase) All the______________________________________________________________ 4. John was the last man in the contest held last year. He reached the top of the mountain (Reduce the relative clause into To-infinitive) John________________________________________________________________ ______THE END_______
  20. TRƢỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 THÁI PHIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH– LỚP 11 Thời gian:45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Mã đề thi 123 Họ và tên: ……………………………………..………… Lớp: ……………..............................(ghi bằng chữ và bằng số) Số báo danh: ……………………………………….Phòng thi: ……………………………………………………. Họ, tên, chữ ký Giám thị: Họ, tên, chữ ký Giám khảo: ĐIỂM THI (Bằng số, làm tròn đến 1 chữ số thập phân)………..……ĐIỂM THI (Bằng chữ)………………………. I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8,0 điểm): Học sinh dùng bút chì để tô vào phƣơng án trả lời đúng ở ô phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm (Học sinh dùng bút khác thì cho 0 (không) điểm phần này) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Question 1. A. human B. future C. commune D. pollution Question 2. A. stamps B. numbers C. letters D. parcels Choose the word that has a different stress pattern. Question 3. A. variety B. participant C. television D. facility Question 4. A. expensive B. plentiful C. dangerous D. infinite Choose the best answer to each of the following questions or do as directed. Question 5. Andy: “ ________ ” Bob: “I‟m afraid I‟m not feeling very well.” A. What‟s the matter with you? B. How do you do? C. You seem to be very happy. D. You look very sad indeed. Question 6. Mary: “Let‟s go camping!” Jack: “_________The weather is not so good today.” A. No problem. B. Just bring yourself. C. Oh, I don‟t think it‟s a good idea. D. Yes, let‟s do that. Question 7. The Olympic Games is one of the biggest sporting ________ all over the world. A. problems B. athletes C. cultures D. events Question 8. Most of our energy comes from ________ fuels such as oil, coal, and natural gas. A. natural B. fossil C. artificial D. renewable Question 9. Your EMS mail will be _________ in the shortest possible time. A. exchanged B. delivered C. transferred D. managed Question 10. _______ can help an athlete to improve the strength of muscles and the appearance of the body. A. Shooting B. Table tennis C. Weightlifting D. Playing chess Question 11. They didn‟t want to come with us at first but we ________ persuade them. A. could B. were able to C. was able to D. be able to Question 12. The _______ friendly products are designed not to harm the natural environment. A. environment B. environmental C. environmentally D. environmentalism Question 13. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful ________. A. coexistence B. coordination C. corporation D. cooperation Question 14. In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to vegetables _______ organically. A. that grow B. are grown C. grown D. which grows Question 15. Geometry is a branch of mathematics _______ with the properties of lines, curves, shapes, and surfaces. A. that concerning B. that concerned C. that it is concerned D. concerned Question 16. He‟d better go to bed early, ________? A. hadn‟t he B. wouldn‟t he C. would he D. had he
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Trung học phổ thông Ôn thi ĐH-CĐ Đề thi - Kiểm tra Sáng kiến kinh nghiệm Tiểu học Mầm non - Mẫu giáo Giáo án điện tử Trung học cơ sở Bài giảng điện tử Bài văn mẫu Vật lý Bài tập SGK Khoa học xã hội Tiếng Anh phổ thông